Category: Cisco Dumps Questions

Updated Cisco 210-060 CICD exam question answers | ExamGood

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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below.
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
Answer: C

Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify
C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
Answer: A,D,E,F

An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Answer: D

An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active?
A. LDAP System Configuration
B. LDAP Directory
C. End User Configuration
D. LDAP Authentication
E. Route Plan Report
Answer: C

A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Answer: D

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Updated 300-115 SWITCH practice test | ExamGood

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Share some CCNP 300-115 exam questions and answers below.
Which option is?valid for EtherChannel load balancing?
A: source MAC address and source IP address
B: destination MAC address and destination IP address
C: source MAC address and destination IP address
D: source MAC address and destination MAC address
Answer: D

Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol configuration on a Cisco switch is true?
A. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp run.
B. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp enable.
C. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp enable.
D. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp run.
Answer: A

After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/ down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Answer: A

After configuring new data VLANs 1020 through 1030 on the VTP server, a network engineer notices that none of the VTP clients are receiving the updates.
What is the problem?
A. The VTP server must be reloaded.
B. The VTP version number must be set to version 3.
C. After each update to the VTP server, it takes up to 4 hours propagate.
D. VTP must be stopped and restarted on the server.
E. Another switch in the domain has a higher revision number than the server.
Answer: B

What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
F. 13
Answer: D

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Share some CCNP 300-135 exam questions and answers below.
The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NTP
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: A

The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. IPv4 OSPF Routing
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
E. IPv4 Route Redistribution
F. IPv6 RIP Routing
G. IPv6 OSPF Routing
H. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability
I. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: G

The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NAT
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: C

Which command will limit debug output ppp authentication on serial 0/1 and serial 0/2?
A. debug condition interface range s0/1 -0/2
debug ppp authentication
B. debug condition interface s0/1 & 0/2
debug ppp authentication
C. debug int s0/1
debug int 0/2
debug ppp authentication
D. Debug condition interface s0/1
Debug condition interface s0/2
debug ppp authentication
Answer: D

The tunnel between R1 and R3 is not coming up. Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
(Topology with a GRE tunnel and the outputs provided are show ip int brief and tunnel source and destination)
A. Tunnel source int Eth0/0 is down
B. No route from R1 to R3 loopback0 (tunnel destination)
C. source and destination not in same subnet
D. http://bbs.hh010.com/
Answer: AB

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Share some CCIE 400-101 exam questions and answers below.
Which two statements about static routing are true?(choose two.)

A. It provides better security than dynamic routing

B. It is highly scalable as networks grow.

C. It reduces configuration errors.

D. It requires less bandwidth and fewer CPU cycles than dynamic routing protocols.

E. It can be implemented more quickly than dynamic routing.

Answer: A ,D

Which two statements about route redistribution default metrics are true? (Choose two)

A. When EIGRP is redistributed into OSPF as E2, it has a default metric of 20.

B. When an IGP is redistributed into RIP, it has a default metric of 1.

C. When an IGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 110.

D. When an IGP is redistributed into IS-IS, it has a default metric of 115.

E. When an BGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 1.

Answer: A, E

Drag and drop BGP attributes on the left into the correct priority order in which the attributes are preferred when determining the best path on the right.

Answer:

Which data plane protocol does EIGRP Over the Top use?

A. MPLS

B. GRE

C. LISP

D. IP-in-IP

Answer: C

What are two mechanisms that directed ARP uses to help resolve IP addresses to hardware addresses? (Choose two)

A. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise rou information for the device loopback address.

B. It uses ICMP redirects to advertise next-hop addresses to foreign hosts.

C. It uses series of ICMP echo messages to relay next-hop addresses.

D. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise routing information for the next-hop address.

E. It uses a proxy mechanism to allow a device to respond to ARP requests for the addresses of other devices.

Answer: BD

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Share some CCNA Cyber Ops 210-250 exam questions and answers below.
Which identifier is used to describe the application or process that submitted a log message?

A. action

B. selector

C. priority

D. facility

Answer: D

Which identifier is used to describe the application or process that submitted a log message?

A. action

B. selector

C. priority

D. facility

Answer: D

Which two terms are types of cross site scripting attacks? (Choose two)

A. directed

B. encoded

C. stored

D. reflected

E. cascaded

Answer: CD

Which two terms are types of cross site scripting attacks? (Choose two )

A. directed

B. encoded

C. stored

D. reflected

E. cascaded

Answer: CD

Which definition describes the main purpose of a Security Information and Event Management solution ?

A. a database that collects and categorizes indicators of compromise to evaluate and search for potential security threats

B. a monitoring interface that manages firewall access control lists for duplicate firewall filtering

C. a relay server or device that collects then forwards event logs to another log collection device

D. a security product that collects, normalizes, and correlates event log data to provide holistic views of the security posture

Answer: D


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Share some CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 exam questions and answers below.
Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?

A. data normalization

B. data availability

C. data protection

D. data signature

Answer: B

Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?

A. col [0-9] +our

B. colo?ur

C. colou?r

D. [a-z] {7}

Answer: C

Which statement about threat actors is true?

A. They are any company assets that are threatened.

B. They are any assets that are threatened.

C. They are perpetrators of attacks.

D. They are victims of attacks.

Answer: B

Which two options can be used by a threat actor to determine the role of a server? (Choose two.)

A. PCAP

B. tracert

C. running processes

D. hard drive configuration

E. applications

Answer: CD

Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component?

A. confidentiality

B. integrity

C. availability

D. complexity

Answer: A

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Share some Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 500-265 exam questions and answers below.
Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five years and require nontraditional security? (Choose two.)

A. BYOD

B. Wi-Fi connections

C. partial URL and application blocking

D. third-party applications

E. web and email attacks

F. a large number of remote employees

Answer: A,F

In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the security solutions are directly built upon which component?

A. management and intelligence capabilities

B. Cisco security platforms

C. third-party applications

D. security intelligence operations

Answer: B

The current Cisco comprehensive framework solutions are divided into which three categories? (Choose three.)

A. Content Security

B. Cloud Security

C. Network Security

D. Access Security

E. Data Center Security

F. Internet Security

G. Advanced Malware Protection

Answer: A,C,D

Which three values should you use to position Cisco security solutions? (Choose three.)

A. time-to-value

B. protection

C. control

D. integration

E. flexibility

F. agility

G. scalability

Answer: B,C,E

Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)

A. fragmented solutions

B. the lack of management solutions

C. missing components

D. solutions being pieced together

E. the lack of a cloud solution

F. the lack of a firewall

G. security gaps

Answer: A,D,G

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Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE 300-101) is a 120-minute qualifying exam with 50‒60 questions for the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching and CCDP certifications. The ROUTE 300-101 exam certifies the routing knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in using advanced IP addressing and routing in implementing scalable and highly secure Cisco routers that are connected to LANs, WANs, and IPv6.


Share some CCNP 300-101 exam questions and answers below.
In IPv6, SLAAC provides the ability to address a host based on a network prefix that is advertised from a local network router. How is the prefix advertised?
A. routing table
B. router advertisements
C. routing protocol
D. routing type
Answer: B

On which two types of interface is Frame Relay switching supported? (Choose two.)
A. serial interfaces
B. Ethernet interfaces
C. fiber interfaces
D. ISDN interfaces
E. auxiliary interfaces
Answer: A,D

A network engineer is considering enabling load balancing with EIGRP. Which consideration should be analyzed?
A. EIGRP allows a maximum of four paths across for load balancing traffic.
B. By default, EIGRP uses a default variance of 2 for load balancing.
C. EIGRP unequal path load balancing can result in routing loops.
D. By default, EIGRP performs equal cost load balancing at least across four equal cost paths.
Answer: D

An engineer is configuring a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface. Which option also is required on the tunnel interface before it is operational?
A. tunnel destination address
B. keepalives
C. IPv6 address
D. tunnel protection
Answer: A

Which statement is true?
A. RADIUS uses TCP, and TACACS+ uses UDP.
B. RADIUS encrypts the entire body of the packet.
C. TACACS+ encrypts only the password portion of a packet.
D. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization.
Answer: D

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We share the latest valid CCNP 300-115 exam questions and answers which are from the real exam test.
For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch.
Which two actions can prevent interface trunking? (Choose two.)
A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.
B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis.
C. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter.
D. Enable switchport block on access ports.
Answer: AB

What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address- table?
A. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.
Answer: A

Which option describes a limitation of LLDP?
A. LLDP cannot provide information about VTP.
B. LLDP does not support TLVs.
C. LLDP can discover only Windows servers.
D. LLDP can discover up to two devices per port.
Answer: A

If a network engineer applies the command mac-address-table notification mac-move on a Cisco switch port, when is a syslog message generated?
A. A MAC address or host moves between different switch ports.
B. A new MAC address is added to the content-addressable memory.
C. A new MAC address is removed from the content-addressable memory.
D. More than 64 MAC addresses are added to the content-addressable memory.
Answer: A

After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/ down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Answer: A

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