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Which three components are part of a Unified Access solution? (Choose three.)
A. One Policy (Cisco ISE)
B. One Management (Cisco Prime)
C. One Network (wired, wireless, VPN access)
D. One Controller (Converged)
E. One Solution
F. One Security
If customers want to automate and simplify the deployment of one or more new Cisco Catalyst switches, which feature should they use?
A. Cisco Smart Install
B. Cisco Smart Deploy
C. Cisco Auto Deploy
D. Cisco Auto Config
When Cisco Catalyst 3850 Switches are implemented in a stack configuration, which command is used to verify the role of each switch in the stack, and what are the two roles supported?
A. show switch stack role; active/standby
B. show switch detail; active/standby
C. show switch member; master/member
D. show stack detail; master/member
Which platform supports SSO?
A. Nexus 1000V Series Switches
B. Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
C. Catalyst 3850 Series Switches
D. Catalyst 3750-X Series Switches
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Target Audience End-user technical staff Video system administrators First-line support personnel
500-701 Exam Prerequisites It is recommended, but not required, that students have the following knowledge and skills: Basic computer literacy Basic IP network literacy Basic knowledge of video conferencing and streaming fundamentals
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Of which type of Cisco switching solution is the cisco 2960L switch an example?
A. business-class on premises
B. cloud managed
C. enterprise class on premises
D. enterprise-class of premises
Which two products are considered a part of the Cisco Meraki full stacks (Choose two )
A. Aironet wireless access points
B. Catalyst switches
C. MR wireless access points
D. UCS servers
E. MX security appliances
Which technology is used by Cisco Stealthwatch to collect traffic for threat analysis?
Winch product is a Cisco cloud managed product?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Aironet wireless access point
C. Cisco Meraki MS series switch
D. Cisco ISR series router
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A customer has implemented several WLANs in an auditorium utilizing a newly dedicated WLC and is experiencing excessive channel utilization regardless of occupancy. Which action reduces channel utilization without removing SSIDs?
A.Disable MCS data rates 0 through 11.
B.Disable MCS data rates used by 40 MHz channels.
C.Disable data rates that use CCK.
D.Disable VHT data rates.
A customer requires that an SSID is broadcasted to specific access points that use certain interfaces. Which feature can be used to achieve this goal?
A WLAN engineer has been asked to upgrade the software on a MSE 3365 Appliance. The engineer cannot access the system using the root password and the Grub password as the details had never been documented. How should the engineer perform the password recovery?
A.Use a console cable.
B.Contact Cisco TAC and arrange an RMA of the MSE.
C.Boot the MSE using the software installation DVD.
D.The Password can be reset using Prime Infrastructure.
Which of the following is not a Cisco RF fingerprinting key advantage over Location Tracking?
A.Uses existing LWAPP-enabled Cisco Unified Networking components.
B.Proprietary client hardware or software is required.
C.Better accuracy and precision.
D.Reduced calibration effort.
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A. When removing VLAN 1 from a trunk, management traffic such as CDP is no longer passed in that VLAN.
B. Cisco switches that run PVST+ do not transmit BPDUs on nonnative VLANs when using a dot 1 q trunk.
C. DTP is a point-to-point protocol.
D. DTP only supports autonegotiation on 802.1q and does not support autonegotiation for ISL.
Which technology can be used to prevent flooding of IPv6 multicast traffic on a switch?
A. IGMP snooping
B. IGMP filtering
C. MLD snooping
D. MLD filtering
For which reason can two OSPF neighbor routers on the same LAN segment be stuck in the two-way state?
A. The two routers have different MTUs on the interface.
B. The two routers are configured with different priorities.
C. The interface priority is set to zero on both routers.
D. Both routers have the same OSPF router ID.
How does an IPv6 host automatically generate a global address?
A. It prepends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Advertisement messages.
B. It appends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Advertisement messages.
C. It appends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Solicitation messages.
D. It prepends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Solicitation messages.
Which TCP features allows a client to request a specific packet that was lost?
A. flow control
B. sliding window
C. fast recovery
D. selective acknowledgment
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How Will CUCM receive the DTMF after the phone goes off- hook and the button are pressed?
A. Each digit will be received by CUCM in a SIP NOTIFY message as soon as they are pressed
B. The first digit will be received in a sip invite and subsequent digits will be received using NOTIFY message as soon as they are pressed.
C. Each digit bill be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed.
D. All digits will be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed
Assume there are no classes of service restrictions and all numbers shown are reachable from this Cisco Unified IP 7965 Phone.
Which statement about the dialing key strokes that allow the owner of this phone to reach directory number 2000 is true?
A. Press the last button on the right hand side of the phone screen.
B. There is no way to speed dial to directory number 2000 because the speed dial entry is not assigned.
C. Press 7 on the phone keypad, followed by the Dial soft key.
D. Press 6 on the phone keypad, followed by the Dial soft key.
E. Press 5 on the phone keypad, followed by the AbbrDial soft key.
A user has reported that when trying to access Visual Voicemail the following error is received "Unable to open application. Please try again later. If it continues to fail contact your administrator".
The collaboration engineer is working on the problem found on the following phone logs:
A. Replace the sever name with the server IP on service URL field
B. Eliminate the space in the service Name field
C. Configure DNS on phone configuration so it can resolve server name
D. Check the Enable checkbox on IP phone service configuration
Refer to the exhibit.
A customer is configuring CAR costing for call. When the customer runs the costing reports calls are not being tagged correctly.
Which two changes allow proper costing to be determined for these calls? (Choose two)
A. The toll free area code field must be updated to include all toll free area codes
B. A new local pattern must be added with the pattern "k!"
C. A new pattern must be added for the 914 and 625 area codecs
D. The items are out of order and must be sorted with the most specific at the top
E. Overlapping area codec on the trunks must be removed
F. All external patterns must be change to include the outside access code
Which two settings should be configured on the SIP Trunk Security Profile for the IM & Presence Service SIP Trunk? (Choose two.)
A. Check to enable Accept Presence Subscription.
B. Verify that the setting for Incoming Transport Type is TCP+UDP.
C. Configure Device Security Mode to Encrypted.
D. Check to enable Enable Application Level Authorization.
E. Configure the Outgoing Transport Type to TLS.
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The customer has a self-managed MPLS backbone.
The VPLS WAN backbone of the service provider does not support PIM snooping.
Multicast VPN must be used for multicast support inside some VRFs.
What can the customer do so that multicast traffic is NOT flooded to all sites?
A. Configure static GRE tunnels and run the MPLS and multicast VPN inside these GRE tunnels.
B. Use Label Switched Multicast for the multicast transport.
C. Use PIM-SSM as the multicast routing protocol with IETF Rosen Draft multicast VPN.
D. Configure a static mapping between multicast addresses and MAC addresses.
E. Use GET VPN to encrypt the multicast packets inside the WAN.
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in this network are configured to place all interfaces in OSPF area 5. R3 is the designated router on the 10.1.5.0/24 network. If you examine the OSPF database on R4, what would the network (type 2) LSA, generated by R3, contain?
A. a connection to 10.1.5.0/24 and links to R3, R2, and R1
B. a connection to 10.1.5.0/24 and links to R2 and R1
C. connections to 10.1.5.0/24 and 10.1.1.0/31
D. no connections, R3 does not generate a network (type 2) LSA in this network
A service provider has a Resilient Ethernet Protocol ring running as a metro backbone between its locations in one city. A customer wants to connect one site with one box redundant to the Resilient Ethernet Protocol ring at two different service provider locations. How can this be done without producing any Layer 2 loops within the network design?
A. Spanning tree at the service provider side only must be enabled.
B. Spanning tree at the customer side only must be enabled.
C. Flex Links at the service provider side only must be enabled.
D. Flex Links at the customer side only must be enabled.
E. EtherChannel at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
F. Spanning tree at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
G. Flex Links at the service provider side and the customer side must be enabled.
Refer to the exhibit.
Your company designed a network to allow server VLANs in a data center to span all access switches. In the design, Layer 3 VLAN interfaces and HSRP are configured on the aggregation switches. In which three ways should the design of the STP domain be optimized for server and application performance? (Choose three.)
A. Use loop guard on access ports.
B. Use PortFast on access ports.
C. Use root guard on access ports.
D. Align Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding paths.
E. Use BPDU Skew Detection on access ports.
F. Explicitly determine root and backup root bridges.
Refer to the exhibit. R2 and R3 are running EBGP and are learning Network A and Network B. R2 and R3 are also running IBGP to exchange Network A and Network B. OSPF is IGP. R2 and R3 are advertising default routes. R1 and R4 can send and receive traffic from Network A and Network B respectively. However, Network A cannot send traffic to Network B.
How can you solve this problem?
A. create a tunnel between R2 and R3
B. create a tunnel between R2 and R4
C. create static default routes pointing from R1 and R4 to R2 and R3, respectively
D. convert R3 and R2 to ABRs so that R1 and R4 can choose the closest ABR to exit the network
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Share some CCNP Cloud 300-465 exam questions and answers below. A cloud administrator is considering the appropriate solution to automate a hybrid cloud deployment. The solution requires a single pane of glass infrastructure management, monitoring, health dashboard, orchestration and a self-service portal. Which solution is most appropriate for this environment?
B.Cisco UCS Director
D.Cisco Enablement Platform
A cloud administrator is considering storage for a deployment. The admin needs a solution that is durable and reliable and fits the need for storing media, web assets, and backups. Which solution meets this need the best?
A.Cloud file storage
B.Cloud block storage
C.Cloud hybrid storage
D.Cloud NFS storage
When considering a private cloud integrated infrastructure, which solution is prebuilt and tested before being delivered to a customer only using Cisco, and VMware?
Which solution provides centralized automation and policy-driven application profiles?
Which large-scale Layer 2 connectivity protocol is best (or VLAN address space that is limited in large networks?
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A. A preauthentication ACL must be defined.
B. Local client profiling must be enabled.
C. The SSID must use MAC filtering.
D. A passive client must be enabled.
You are configuring a Cisco WLC version 8.0. Which two options do you find on the Layer 3 Security tab? (Choose two)
You are configuring the social login for a guest network.Which three options are configurable social connectors in Cisco CMX Visitor Connect? (Choose three)
An engineer is configuring a BYOD provisioning WLAN. Which two advanced WLAN settings are required? (Choose two)
A. DHCP profiling
B. DHCP address assignment
C. passive client
D. RADIUS NAC
E. AAA override
An engineer is confining EAP-TLS with a client trusting server model and has configured a public root certification authority. Which action does this allow?
A. specifies a second certification authority to trust
B. utilizes two sub certification authority servers
C. creates a PKI infrastructure
D. validates the AAA server
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