Category: Cisco Dumps Questions

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Which configuration step is necessary to enable Visitor Connect on an SSID?

A. A preauthentication ACL must be defined.

B. Local client profiling must be enabled.

C. The SSID must use MAC filtering.

D. A passive client must be enabled.

Answer: A

You are configuring a Cisco WLC version 8.0. Which two options do you find on the Layer 3 Security tab? (Choose two)

A. 802.1x

B. Authentication

C. Passthrough

D. CKIP

E. WPA+WPA2

Answer: BC

You are configuring the social login for a guest network.Which three options are configurable social connectors in Cisco CMX Visitor Connect? (Choose three)

A. LinkedIn

B. Pinterest

C. Medium

D. Google+

E. Facebook

F. Myspace

Answer: ADE

An engineer is configuring a BYOD provisioning WLAN. Which two advanced WLAN settings are required? (Choose two)

A. DHCP profiling

B. DHCP address assignment

C. passive client

D. RADIUS NAC

E. AAA override

Answer: DE

An engineer is confining EAP-TLS with a client trusting server model and has configured a public root certification authority. Which action does this allow?

A. specifies a second certification authority to trust

B. utilizes two sub certification authority servers

C. creates a PKI infrastructure

D. validates the AAA server

Answer: D

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After the completion of a site survey with Ekahau Site Survey tool, using the default color palette, it is noted that multiple areas are shown as white on the heat map when viewing 5 GHz signal strength data. What does this indicate about the signal strength?

A. The area is below the minimum threshold configured on the tool.

B. The area is below the detectable level and indicates no RF signal.

C. The area is below -100 dBm at coverage cell edge.

D. The area is below -67 dBm at coverage cell edge.

Answer: B

An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a carpeted office space, which requires voice capability and location services.

Which two requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose two.)

A. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from three access points

B. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points

C. overlapping-72 dBm coverage from two access points

D. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access pointe. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point

Answer: BD

Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose two.)

A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.

B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.

C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installation is complete.

D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach theCisco TAC if they have any problems.

E. Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.

Answer: B,E

An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a medical treatment environment, which requires data and voice services. Which of the following is a requirement for the design?

A. overlapping -72 dBm coverage from two access points

B. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points

C. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point

D. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point

Answer: C

An engineer must design wireless coverage in thick-walled stairwells. Which information should the engineer refer to when determining where APs can be installed?

A. Local or National Building Code

B. IEEE

C. BICSI TDMM

D. Cisco Hardware Installation Guide

Answer: A


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Which Cisco Nexus feature is best managed with DCNM-SAN?

A. VSS

B. domain parameters

C. virtual switches

D. AAA

Answer: B

After enabling strong, reversible 128-bit Advanced Encryption Standard password type-6 encryption on a Cisco Nexus 7000, which command would convert existing plain or weakly encrypted passwords to type-6 encrypted passwords?

A. switch# key config-key ascii

B. switch(config)# feature password encryption aes

C. switch# encryption re-encrypt obfuscated

D. switch# encryption decrypt type6

Answer: C

By default it will take 10 seconds for authentication to fail due to an unresponsive RADIUS server before a Cisco Nexus series switch reverts to another RADIUS server or local authentication. What is one efficient way to improve the reaction time to a RADIUS server failure?

A. Decrease the global RADIUS retransmission count to 1.

B. Decrease the global RADIUS timeout interval to 5 seconds.

C. Configure the RADIUS retransmission count and timeout interval per server, versus globally.

D. Configure per server a test idle timer, along with a username and password.

Answer: D

Which statement about the Layer 3 card on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch is true?

A. BGP support is not provided, but RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF support is provided.

B. Up to two 4-port cards are supported with up to 160 Gb/s of Layer 3 forwarding capability.

C. Up to 16 FEX connections are supported.

D. Port channels cannot be configured as Layer 3 interfaces.

Answer: C

Which two security features are only supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)

A. IP source guard

B. traffic storm control

C. CoPP

D. DHCP snooping

E. Dynamic ARP Inspection

F. NAC

Answer: B, F

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What is the solution of the fault condition?

A. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration add the permit ip 209.65.200.224 0.0.0.3 any command

B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 enter the ip access-group edge_security out command.

C. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration delete the deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any command

D. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration delete the ip access-group edge_security in command and enter the ip access group edge_security out command

Answer: A

What is the solution to the fault condition?

A. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command.

B. Under the interface Loopback6 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command.

C. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command.

D. Under ipv6 router ospf 6 configuration enter the redistribute rip RIP_ZONE include-connected command.

Answer: D

Ticket 4 NATACL

TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT:

The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server).

show run by yourself to obtain the following information:

Configuration on R1

ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload !

ip access-list standard nat_pool

permit 10.1.0.0

! interface Serial0/0/0/1

ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252

ip nat outside

! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip nat inside

ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT

ip ospd authentication message-digest

On Which device is the fault condition located?

A. R1

B. R2

C. R3

D. R4

E. DSW1

F. DSW2

G. ASW1

Answer: A

Ticket 5 R1ACL

TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT:

The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server).

show run by yourself to obtain the following information:

Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 is also not able to reach the WebServer. R1 also does not have any active BGP neighbor.

Configuration on R1

! interface Serial0/0/0/1

description link to ISP

ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252

ip access-group edge_security in

ip nat outside

ip virtual-reassembly

ntp brasdcast client

net broadcast key 1

no cdp enable

!! ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255

ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255

! ip access-list edge_security deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any

ip access-list edge_security deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any

ip access-list edge_security deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any

ip access-list edge_security deny ip 127.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any

ip access-list edge_security permit ip host 209.65.200.241 any

On which device is the fault condition located?

A. R1

B. R2

C. R3

D. R4

E. DSW1

F. DSW2

G. ASW1

Answer: A

R1 and R2 OSPF neighbor.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two)

(Output from show ip ospf neighbors on 2 routers, one of them shows FULL/DR, the other FULL/-, you need to know how were they configured and will they exchange routes)

A. They are not neighbors

B. R1 (non-DR) will not update its routes to R2

C. Router R2 is configured with ospf point-to-point command (R2 is the router that shows as FULL/-)

D. They need to be configured as OSPF NBMA

E. R2 should be configured as stub

Answer: BC

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Which FEX topology ensures deterministic bandwidth at the expense of server-link stability during FEX uplink failure?

A. port channel

B. static pinning

C. virtual port channel

D. dynamic pinning

E. Equal-Cost Multipath

F. RPVST

Answer: B

Which design steps could be considered optional?

A. audit

B. solution sizing

C. analysis

D. deployment provision

Answer: A

What is your recommendation to a customer interested in slowing power consumption in the data center? (Choose two.)

A. Consolidate servers through virtualization.

B. Convert servers from 220v to 110v.

C. Implement Cisco Unified Fabric.

D. Convert from AC to DC power distribution.

E. Stop using redundant power supplies.

Answer: A, C

Which performance characteristic is least likely to require being addressed in the data center solution requirements?

A. server virtualization

B. desktop virtualization

C. distributed computing

D. private cloud

E. power efficiency

Answer: E

Which access-layer device is capable of low-latency 40 Gb Ethernet switching?

A. Cisco Nexus 5596UP

B. Cisco Nexus 4000

C. Cisco Nexus 3016

D. Cisco Nexus 2232

E. Cisco Nexus 2248

Answer: C

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What type of algorithm uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data?

A. a symmetric algorithm

B. an asymmetric algorithm

C. a Public Key Infrastructure algorithm

D. an IP security algorithm

Answer: A

Which two statements about Telnet access to the ASA are true? (Choose two).

A. You may VPN to the lowest security interface to telnet to an inside interface.

B. You must configure an AAA server to enable Telnet.

C. You can access all interfaces on an ASA using Telnet.

D. You must use the command virtual telnet to enable Telnet.

E. Best practice is to disable Telnet and use SSH.

Answer: A,E

What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)

A. 0

B. 1

C. 5

D. 7

E. 10

F. 15

Answer: B,F

What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal firewall?

A. To protect endpoints such as desktops from malicious activity.

B. To protect one virtual network segment from another.

C. To determine whether a host meets minimum security posture requirements.

D. To create a separate, non-persistent virtual environment that can be destroyed after a session.

E. To protect the network from DoS and syn-flood attacks.

Answer: A

What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?

A. split tunneling

B. hairpinning

C. tunnel mode

D. transparent mode

Answer: A

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Which feature is automatically configured when an administrator enables a voice VLAN?

A: 802.1Q trunking

B: PortFast

C: QoS

D: private VLANs

Answer: B

What is the default value for the errdisable recovery interval in a Cisco switch?

A. 30 seconds

B. 100 seconds

C. 300 seconds

D. 600 seconds

Answer: C

In a Cisco switch, what is the default period of time after which a MAC address ages out and is discarded?

A. 100 seconds

B. 180 seconds

C. 300 seconds

D. 600 seconds

Answer: C

While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking is not currently enabled.

Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol?

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2

B. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager

C. logging buffered

D. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface

E. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options

Answer: A

After configuring new data VLANs 1020 through 1030 on the VTP server, a network engineer notices that none of the VTP clients are receiving the updates.

What is the problem?

A. The VTP server must be reloaded.

B. The VTP version number must be set to version 3.

C. After each update to the VTP server, it takes up to 4 hours propagate.

D. VTP must be stopped and restarted on the server.

E. Another switch in the domain has a higher revision number than the server.

Answer: B

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Which definition describes the main purpose of a Security Information and Event Management solution ?

A. a database that collects and categorizes indicators of compromise to evaluate and search for potential security threats

B. a monitoring interface that manages firewall access control lists for duplicate firewall filtering

C. a relay server or device that collects then forwards event logs to another log collection device

D. a security product that collects, normalizes, and correlates event log data to provide holistic views of the security posture

Answer: D

Which protocol is expected to have NTP a user agent, host, and referrer headers in a packet capture?

A. NTP

B. HTTP

C. DNS

D. SSH

Answer: B

Which definition of a fork in Linux is true?

A. daemon to execute scheduled commands

B. parent directory name of a file pathname

C. macros for manipulating CPU sets

D. new process created by a parent process

Answer: C

Which identifier is used to describe the application or process that submitted a log message?

A. action

B. selector

C. priority

D. facility

Answer: D

Which definition of permissions in Linux is true?

A. rules that allow network traffic to go in and out

B. table maintenance program

C. written affidavit that you have to sign before using the system

D. attributes of ownership and control of an object

Answer: A

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Share some CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 exam questions and answers below.
Which two options can be used by a threat actor to determine the role of a server? (Choose two.)

A. PCAP

B. tracert

C. running processes

D. hard drive configuration

E. applications

Answer: CD

Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component?

A. confidentiality

B. integrity

C. availability

D. complexity

Answer: A

You see 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for various pages on one of your webservers. The user agent in the requests contain php code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new php file on the webserver. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?

A. delivery

B. reconnaissance

C. action on objectives

D. installation

E. exploitation

Answer: D

Which two components are included in a 5-tuple? (Choose two.)

A. port number

B. destination IP address

C. data packet

D. user name

E. host logs

Answer: BC

During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?

A. collection

B. examination

C. reporting

D. investigation

Answer: A

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