Category: Cisco Dumps Questions

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Which two statements about static routing are true?(choose two.)

A. It provides better security than dynamic routing

B. It is highly scalable as networks grow.

C. It reduces configuration errors.

D. It requires less bandwidth and fewer CPU cycles than dynamic routing protocols.

E. It can be implemented more quickly than dynamic routing.

Answer: A ,D

Which two statements about route redistribution default metrics are true? (Choose two)

A. When EIGRP is redistributed into OSPF as E2, it has a default metric of 20.

B. When an IGP is redistributed into RIP, it has a default metric of 1.

C. When an IGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 110.

D. When an IGP is redistributed into IS-IS, it has a default metric of 115.

E. When an BGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 1.

Answer: A, E

Drag and drop BGP attributes on the left into the correct priority order in which the attributes are preferred when determining the best path on the right.


Which data plane protocol does EIGRP Over the Top use?




D. IP-in-IP

Answer: C

What are two mechanisms that directed ARP uses to help resolve IP addresses to hardware addresses? (Choose two)

A. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise rou information for the device loopback address.

B. It uses ICMP redirects to advertise next-hop addresses to foreign hosts.

C. It uses series of ICMP echo messages to relay next-hop addresses.

D. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise routing information for the next-hop address.

E. It uses a proxy mechanism to allow a device to respond to ARP requests for the addresses of other devices.

Answer: BD

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Which identifier is used to describe the application or process that submitted a log message?

A. action

B. selector

C. priority

D. facility

Answer: D

Which identifier is used to describe the application or process that submitted a log message?

A. action

B. selector

C. priority

D. facility

Answer: D

Which two terms are types of cross site scripting attacks? (Choose two)

A. directed

B. encoded

C. stored

D. reflected

E. cascaded

Answer: CD

Which two terms are types of cross site scripting attacks? (Choose two )

A. directed

B. encoded

C. stored

D. reflected

E. cascaded

Answer: CD

Which definition describes the main purpose of a Security Information and Event Management solution ?

A. a database that collects and categorizes indicators of compromise to evaluate and search for potential security threats

B. a monitoring interface that manages firewall access control lists for duplicate firewall filtering

C. a relay server or device that collects then forwards event logs to another log collection device

D. a security product that collects, normalizes, and correlates event log data to provide holistic views of the security posture

Answer: D

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Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?

A. data normalization

B. data availability

C. data protection

D. data signature

Answer: B

Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?

A. col [0-9] +our

B. colo?ur

C. colou?r

D. [a-z] {7}

Answer: C

Which statement about threat actors is true?

A. They are any company assets that are threatened.

B. They are any assets that are threatened.

C. They are perpetrators of attacks.

D. They are victims of attacks.

Answer: B

Which two options can be used by a threat actor to determine the role of a server? (Choose two.)


B. tracert

C. running processes

D. hard drive configuration

E. applications

Answer: CD

Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component?

A. confidentiality

B. integrity

C. availability

D. complexity

Answer: A

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Share some Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge 500-265 exam questions and answers below.
Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five years and require nontraditional security? (Choose two.)


B. Wi-Fi connections

C. partial URL and application blocking

D. third-party applications

E. web and email attacks

F. a large number of remote employees

Answer: A,F

In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the security solutions are directly built upon which component?

A. management and intelligence capabilities

B. Cisco security platforms

C. third-party applications

D. security intelligence operations

Answer: B

The current Cisco comprehensive framework solutions are divided into which three categories? (Choose three.)

A. Content Security

B. Cloud Security

C. Network Security

D. Access Security

E. Data Center Security

F. Internet Security

G. Advanced Malware Protection

Answer: A,C,D

Which three values should you use to position Cisco security solutions? (Choose three.)

A. time-to-value

B. protection

C. control

D. integration

E. flexibility

F. agility

G. scalability

Answer: B,C,E

Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)

A. fragmented solutions

B. the lack of management solutions

C. missing components

D. solutions being pieced together

E. the lack of a cloud solution

F. the lack of a firewall

G. security gaps

Answer: A,D,G

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Share some CCNP 300-101 exam questions and answers below.
In IPv6, SLAAC provides the ability to address a host based on a network prefix that is advertised from a local network router. How is the prefix advertised?
A. routing table
B. router advertisements
C. routing protocol
D. routing type
Answer: B

On which two types of interface is Frame Relay switching supported? (Choose two.)
A. serial interfaces
B. Ethernet interfaces
C. fiber interfaces
D. ISDN interfaces
E. auxiliary interfaces
Answer: A,D

A network engineer is considering enabling load balancing with EIGRP. Which consideration should be analyzed?
A. EIGRP allows a maximum of four paths across for load balancing traffic.
B. By default, EIGRP uses a default variance of 2 for load balancing.
C. EIGRP unequal path load balancing can result in routing loops.
D. By default, EIGRP performs equal cost load balancing at least across four equal cost paths.
Answer: D

An engineer is configuring a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface. Which option also is required on the tunnel interface before it is operational?
A. tunnel destination address
B. keepalives
C. IPv6 address
D. tunnel protection
Answer: A

Which statement is true?
A. RADIUS uses TCP, and TACACS+ uses UDP.
B. RADIUS encrypts the entire body of the packet.
C. TACACS+ encrypts only the password portion of a packet.
D. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization.
Answer: D

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For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch.
Which two actions can prevent interface trunking? (Choose two.)
A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.
B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis.
C. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter.
D. Enable switchport block on access ports.
Answer: AB

What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address- table?
A. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.
Answer: A

Which option describes a limitation of LLDP?
A. LLDP cannot provide information about VTP.
B. LLDP does not support TLVs.
C. LLDP can discover only Windows servers.
D. LLDP can discover up to two devices per port.
Answer: A

If a network engineer applies the command mac-address-table notification mac-move on a Cisco switch port, when is a syslog message generated?
A. A MAC address or host moves between different switch ports.
B. A new MAC address is added to the content-addressable memory.
C. A new MAC address is removed from the content-addressable memory.
D. More than 64 MAC addresses are added to the content-addressable memory.
Answer: A

After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/ down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Answer: A

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The ARC is responsible for which two processes? (Choose two)

A. network policy configuration

B. fabric segmentation

C. BGP end-node emulation

D. ISL blocking per STP implementation

E. switch firmware management

Answer: AD

Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two)

A. access control lists

B. QoS marking

C. Network vMotion

D. port state migration

E. DV Port Groups

Answer: AB

What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)

A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities

B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized

C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities

D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology

E. uses TIL field to provide loop mitigation

Answer: BD

Which statement about a bridge domain is true?

A. A bridge domain must be liked to one internal network and one external network

B. A bridge domain must be linked to a physical domain

C. A bridge domain typically has at least one subnet that Is associated with it

D. A bridge domain must have at least one external network that is associated with it

Answer: C

Which privilege is assigned by default to the UCS Manager Storage Administrator user role?

A. service-storage-security-config

B. service-admin-config

C. service-admin

D. service-profile-storage

Answer: D

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Share some CCNA Data Center 200-150 exam questions and answers below.
Which type of media uses electromagnetic waves that are generated by lasers, is often used in campus backbones, and is capable of transmitting to a distance of 60 kilometers?

A. shielded twisted-pair cable

B. coaxial cable

C. multimode fiber-optic cable

D. single-mode fiber-optic cable

Answer: C

Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)

A. FD00::2


C. FF05::2



Answer: CE

What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Answer: A

A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial number?

A. MDS-A# show license serial-number

B. MDS-A# show running-config I include serial-number

C. MDS-A# show host-id

D. MDS-A# show license host-id

Answer: D

What layer of the OSI Model provides the logical addressing that routers use for path determination?

A. transport

B. network

C. application

D. presentation

Answer: B

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