Category: Cisco Dumps Questions

2017 Newest Version 300-175 CCNP Data Center Dumps Questions

Need to gain Cisco CCNP Data Center certification? You could start by reviewing each exam topic so you are aware of all the topics you need to study and prepare for the Cisco CCNP Data Center exam.

Before you taking this CCNP Data Center certification you should know the prerequisites that valid Cisco CCNA Data Center certification or any Cisco CCIE certification can act as a prerequisite. You should pass all of these three exams 300-175 DCUCI,300-165 DCII,300-170 DCVAI. Besides that you also need to select one 300-160 DCID or 300-180 DCIT. For the different paths you could choose the Design or Troubleshooting Path, pass the associated exams, and achieve CCNP Data Center certification.

Design Path:
300-175 DCUCI
300-165 DCII
300-170 DCVAI
300-160 DCID

Troubleshooting Path:
300-175 DCUCI
300-165 DCII
300-170 DCVAI
300-180 DCIT

You should master 3 tips here for clearing this 300-175 exam in all. Take 300-175 exam for an example.

1. Exam Description
For the core 300-175 Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing(DCUCI) exam we can know the details. The Implementing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing (DCUCI) exam (300-175) is a 90-minute, 60–70 question assessment. It is one of the exams associated with the CCNP Data center Certification. 300-175 exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing Cisco data center technologies including unified computing, unified computing maintenance and operations, automation, unified computing security, and unified computing storage.

2. Exam Topics
There are the topics of 300-175 exam which you should master them well then prepare for your exam test step by step.
1.0 Implement Cisco Unified Computing 28%
2.0 Unified Computing Maintenance and Operations 20%
3.0 Automation 12%
4.0 Unified Computing Security 13%
5.0 Unified Computing Storage 27%

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What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100
Answer: C

A network engineer is extending a LAN segment between two geographically separated data centers.
Which enhancement to a spanning-tree design prevents unnecessary traffic from crossing the extended LAN segment?
A. Modify the spanning-tree priorities to dictate the traffic flow.
B. Create a Layer 3 transit VLAN to segment the traffic between the sites.
C. Use VTP pruning on the trunk interfaces.
D. Configure manual trunk pruning between the two locations.
Answer: C

A new network that consists of several switches has been connected together via trunking interfaces. If all switches currently have the default VTP domain name “null”, which statement describes what happens when a domain name is configured on one of the switches?
A. The switch with the non-default domain name restores back to “null” upon reboot.
B. Switches with higher revision numbers does not accept the new domain name.
C. VTP summary advertisements are sent out of all ports with the new domain name.
D. All other switches with the default domain name become VTP clients.
Answer: C

While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking is not currently enabled.
Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2
B. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager
C. logging buffered
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options
Answer: A

After configuring new data VLANs 1020 through 1030 on the VTP server, a network engineer notices that none of the VTP clients are receiving the updates.
What is the problem?
A. The VTP server must be reloaded.
B. The VTP version number must be set to version 3.
C. After each update to the VTP server, it takes up to 4 hours propagate.
D. VTP must be stopped and restarted on the server.
E. Another switch in the domain has a higher revision number than the server.
Answer: B

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Share some CCNP Data Center 300-180 exam questions and answers below.
Which three are valid tech support bundles to collect in the local management shell? (Choose three.)

A. UCSM

B. UCSM-MGMT

C. Port-Channel

D. Adapter

E. SAN

F. FEX

Answer: A, B, F

A customer is configuring a network control policy in a Cisco UCS domain.

The network control policy configures the network control settings for the Cisco UCS domain, including which three of these? (Choose three.)

A. how the VIF behaves if no uplink port is available in end-host mode

B. the action that the Cisco UCS Manager takes on the remote Ethernet interface, vEthernet interface, or vFibreChannel interface when the associated border port fails

C. Layer 2 switching on the fabric interconnect

D. whether MAC registration occurs on a per-vNIC basis or for all VLANs

E. the end-host mode setting on the I/O module

Answer: A, B, D

Which two types of ports does end host mode switching have? (Choose two.)

A. VSS

B. border

C. router

D. server

E. STP

F. client

Answer: B, D

Which three methods can be used to upgrade the Cisco IMC? (Choose three.)

A. host firmware package

B. blade firmware package

C. controller firmware package

D. management firmware package

E. directly on the blade, under the Installed Firmware tab

F. directly on the blade, under the Blade Firmware tab

G. directly on the blade, under Inventory > CIMC

Answer: D, E, G

In new Cisco UCS release 2.0 installations, what are the default VLAN IDs?

A. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 4048, FCOE default VLAN ID 4048

B. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 3968

C. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 2

D. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 2, FCOE default VLAN ID is 4047

E. Ethernet VLAN default ID is 1, FCOE default VLAN ID is 4048

Answer: E

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Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)

A. fragmented solutions

B. the lack of management solutions

C. missing components

D. solutions being pieced together

E. the lack of a cloud solution

F. the lack of a firewall

G. security gaps

Answer: A,D,G

Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five years and require nontraditional security? (Choose two.)

A. BYOD

B. Wi-Fi connections

C. partial URL and application blocking

D. third-party applications

E. web and email attacks

F. a large number of remote employees

Answer: A,F

In the Cisco future solutions architecture framework, the security solutions are directly built upon which component?

A. management and intelligence capabilities

B. Cisco security platforms

C. third-party applications

D. security intelligence operations

Answer: B

The current Cisco comprehensive framework solutions are divided into which three categories? (Choose three.)

A. Content Security

B. Cloud Security

C. Network Security

D. Access Security

E. Data Center Security

F. Internet Security

G. Advanced Malware Protection

Answer: A,C,D

Which three values should you use to position Cisco security solutions? (Choose three.)

A. time-to-value

B. protection

C. control

D. integration

E. flexibility

F. agility

G. scalability

Answer: B,C,E

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Share some CCIE 400-101 exam questions and answers below.
Which two statements about route redistribution default metrics are true? (Choose two)

A. When EIGRP is redistributed into OSPF as E2, it has a default metric of 20.

B. When an IGP is redistributed into RIP, it has a default metric of 1.

C. When an IGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 110.

D. When an IGP is redistributed into IS-IS, it has a default metric of 115.

E. When an BGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 1.

Answer: A, E

Which traffic plane supports the TFTP and FTP protocols?

A. control plane

B. management plane

C. data plane

D. service plane

Answer: B

Drag and drop BGP attribute on the left to the correct category on the right. Not all options will be used.

Answer:

Refer to the exhibit.

What conclusion can you draw from the given ping output?

A. The Verbose option was set in the IP header

B. The ping operation sent packets ranging from 505 to 1500 bytes in size.

C. The packet life was exceeded in 5 percent of the operations.

D. Fragmentation failed during the ping operation.

Answer: D

Which IPv6 migration method allows IPv4-only devices to communicate with IPv6-only devices?

A. GRE tunnel

B. dual stack

C. ISATAP tunnel

D. NAT64

Answer: D

Which three configuration settings match for switches to be in the same MST region? (Choose three)

A. Domain name

B. VLAN names

C. VLAN-to-instance assignment

D. region name

E. password

F. revision number

Answer: C, D, F

Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true?

A. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.

B. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.

C. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.

D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table

Answer: C

Which three statements about AToM are true? (Choose three)

A. It requires Layer 3 routing between the PE and CE router.

B. The PE routers must share the same VC identifier.

C. IP CEF should be disabled on the PE routers.

D. The attachment circuit is configured with the xconnect command.

E. It requires MPLS between the PE routers.

F. It supports interworking for Frame Relay, PPP and Ethernet but not ATM

Answer: B, D , E

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Share some CCNP 300-135 exam questions and answers below.
The Fault Condition is related to which technology?

A. BGP

B. NTP

C. IP NAT

D. IPv4 OSPF Routing

E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution

F. IPv6 OSPF Routing

G. IPv4 layer 3 security

Answer: A

Ticket 4 NATACL

TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT:

The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server).

show run by yourself to obtain the following information:

Configuration on R1

ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload !

ip access-list standard nat_pool

permit 10.1.0.0

! interface Serial0/0/0/1

ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252

ip nat outside

! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip nat inside

ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT

ip ospd authentication message-digest

On Which device is the fault condition located?

A. R1

B. R2

C. R3

D. R4

E. DSW1

F. DSW2

G. ASW1

Answer: A

The fault condition is related to which technology?

A. NTP

B. IPv4 OSPF Routing

C. IPv6 OSPF Routing

D. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability

E. IPv4 layer 3 security

Answer: D

What is the MTU¡¯s size in a GRE tunnel?

A. 1630

B. 1476

C. 1500

D. 1900

Answer: B

Which command will limit debug output ppp authentication on serial 0/1 and serial 0/2?

A. debug condition interface range s0/1 -0/2

debug ppp authentication

B. debug condition interface s0/1 & 0/2

debug ppp authentication

C. debug int s0/1

debug int 0/2

debug ppp authentication

D. Debug condition interface s0/1

Debug condition interface s0/2

debug ppp authentication

Answer: D

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An engineer must design wireless coverage in thick-walled stairwells. Which information should the engineer refer to when determining where APs can be installed?

A. Local or National Building Code

B. IEEE

C. BICSI TDMM

D. Cisco Hardware Installation Guide

Answer: A

A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters.

Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

A. Use APs with external antennas.

B. Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.

C. Use APs with built-in antennas.

D. Use a battery pack to power APs.

E. Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.

F. Use APs with directional antennas.

Answer: C,D,E

An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a carpeted office space, which requires voice capability and location services.

Which two requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose two.)

A. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from three access points

B. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points

C. overlapping-72 dBm coverage from two access points

D. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access pointe. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point

Answer: BD

What is a common cause for signal attenuation?

A. Cinder block wall

B. Office window

C. Metal door

D. Glass wall

Answer: C

An 802.11n implementation is being discussed. Users are satisfied with the potential 300-450 Mbps throughput of new 802.11n APs. Which three bandwidth requirements are used to calculate per client bandwidth through an 802.11n AP network? (Choose three.)

A. 450 Mbps throughput is the client max for 5-GHz radio.

B. Channel bonding on 5 GHz is required for a client to have a 300 Mbps WiFi link.

C. 300 Mbps throughput is the client max for 2.4-GHz radio.

D. The remaining bandwidth is divided per device when more clients are connected to one AP.

E. 100 Mbps Ethernet switch port is a potential bottleneck.

F. CleanAir helps clear noise for 802.11n channel bonding to work.

Answer: A,C,E

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Which three conditions can occur when metering traffic using a dual token bucket traffic policing QoS mechanism on Cisco routers? (Choose three.)

A. conform

B. pass

C. violate

D. exceed

E. burst

F. matched

Answer: A,C,D

On a Cisco IOS XR router, which mechanism protects the router resources by filtering and policing the packets flows that are destined to the router that is based on defined flow-type rates?

A. LLQ

B. LPTS

C. Committed Access Rate

D. Control Plane Policing

E. Management Plane Protection

F. NetFlow

G. ACL

Answer: B

.DS-TE implementations on Cisco routers support which bandwidth pool(s) and class type(s)? (Choose two.)

A. global pool only

B. subpool only

C. global pool and subpool

D. class-type 0 only

E. class-type 1 only

F. class-type 0 and class-type 1

Answer: C,F

.What is the correct formula for determining the CIR?

A. CIR = Bc/Tc

B. CIR = Bc x Tc C. CIR = Tc/Bc

D. CIR = Bc + Be

E. CIR = Tc/(Bc+Be)

F. CIR = (Bc+Be)/Tc

Answer: A

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