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Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Network Administrator
C. Datastore Consumer
D. Read-Only
Answer: B, C

An administrator with global administrator privileges creates a custom role but fails to assign any
privileges to it.
Which two privileges would the custom role have? (Choose two.)
A. System.View
B. System.Anonymous
C. System.User
D. System.ReadOnly
Answer: A, B

An object has inherited permissions from two parent objects.
What is true about the permissions on the object?
A. The common permissions between the two are applied and the rest are discarded.
B. The permissions are combined from both parent objects.
C. No permissions are applied from the parent objects.
D. The permission is randomly selected from either of the two parent objects.
Answer: B

An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines.
Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?
A. Datastore.Allocate Space
B. Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshot
C. Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshot
D. Datastore.Browse Datastore
Answer: A

An administrator wants to provide users restricted access. The users should only be able to perform the
following tasks:
-Create and consolidate virtual machine snapshots
-Add/Remove virtual disks
-Snapshot Management
Which default role in vCenter Server would meet the administrator’s requirements for the users?
A. Virtual machine user
B. Virtual machine power user
C. Virtual Datacenter administrator
D. VMware Consolidated Backup user
Answer: B

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Share some CCNP 300-135 exam questions and answers below.
The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NTP
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: A

The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. NTP
B. IP DHCP Server
C. IPv4 OSPF Routing
D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing
E. IPv4 Route Redistribution
F. IPv6 RIP Routing
G. IPv6 OSPF Routing
H. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability
I. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: G

The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NAT
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: C

Which command will limit debug output ppp authentication on serial 0/1 and serial 0/2?
A. debug condition interface range s0/1 -0/2
debug ppp authentication
B. debug condition interface s0/1 & 0/2
debug ppp authentication
C. debug int s0/1
debug int 0/2
debug ppp authentication
D. Debug condition interface s0/1
Debug condition interface s0/2
debug ppp authentication
Answer: D

The tunnel between R1 and R3 is not coming up. Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
(Topology with a GRE tunnel and the outputs provided are show ip int brief and tunnel source and destination)
A. Tunnel source int Eth0/0 is down
B. No route from R1 to R3 loopback0 (tunnel destination)
C. source and destination not in same subnet
D. http://bbs.hh010.com/
Answer: AB

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Share some HCNP-R&S H12-222-ENU exam questions and answers below.
LDF is a protocol specifically formulated for label distribution. There are many types of its messages. The messages used to advertise and maintain an LSR existence in the network is( ).
A. Discovery message
B. Session message
C. Advertisement message
D. Notification message
Answer: A

Which of the following description about the configuration is wrong £¿
A. Configure GigabitEthernet 0/0/1 interface as the trusted interface.
B. If the DHCP request message received from GigabitEthernet 0/0/1 has no SubOption1 information of Option 82, the device will generate Option 82 and insert it into the packet.
C. Open DHCP snooping configuration to prevent DHCP server counterfeiter attacks.
D. Open DHCP snooping configuration to prevent ARP spoofing attacks.
Answer: B

ASPF (Application Specific Packet Filter) is a kind of Packet Filter based on the application layer, it will check the application layer protocol information and monitor the application layer protocol status of the connection, and through the Server Map table to achieve a special security mechanism.
Then which statement about the ASPF and Server map table is not correct?
A. ASPF monitors the messages in the communication process.
B. ASPF dynamically create and delete filtering rules.
C. ASPF through the Servermap table to implement dynamic multi-channel protocol data will be allowed to pass.
D. Quintuple Server-map table item implements similar functions to the session table.
Answer: D

IntServ model, before the application sends a message, need to apply for reservation resources to the network.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

The ToS field is used to mark the QoS in the IP packet,in the ToS field uses the first 6bits to mark the DSCP.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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The options of the S2600T’s storage product configuration steps are:
A. file engine
B. array control box
C. hard disk type and quantity
D. Product type
Answer: A

About Smartner, SmartQoS, SmartPartition, Smartcache, which of the following statements are correct? (Multiple Choice)
A. All are the efficiency-enhancing softwares.
B. SmartCache uses SSD to divide into a separate performance level to speed up the data
C. SmartTier puts the appropriate data to the the appropriate place (storage layer) at the right time.
D. SmartPartition’s core idea is to ensure the performance of critical applications through the system core resources partition.
E. Smart QoS can intelligently allocate and adjust the computing resources, cache resources, concurrent resources and hard disk resources in the storage system to meet the different QoS requirements of the different storage services on the same storage device.
Answer: ABCDE

What scenarios as the following are that the deduplication feature of the OceanStor V3 is suitable for application in? (Multiple Choice)
A. Digital Library
B. Desktop Cloud
C. Database
D. Mail System
Answer: AB

The architecture that Huawei’s two-three-center disaster recovery program supports is £º
A. Parallel Architecture, Cascade Architecture
B. Parallel Architecture, Star Architecture
C. Cascade Architecture, Star Architecture
D. Parallel Architecture, Cascade Architecture, Star Architecture
Answer: A

Which of the following product is not included in T series unified storage?
A.S2600T
B.S5000T
C.S5600T/S5800T
D.S6800T
Answer:B

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What is a major advantage of deploying IBM Rational CLM in a single server setup?
A. full Single Sign-On (SSO) support
B. a single LDAP server to control authentication
C. simplified linking of work items
D. easier to schedule maintenance windows
Answer: C

What is a major benefit of real-time planning in IBM Rational CLM?
A. It captures best practices and reuses them across teams.
B. It allows everyone to participate in keeping the plan accurate.
C. It encourages incremental and breakthrough improvements.
D. It clearly separates planning from execution.
Answer: B

Which CLM capability does the Analyst role have full read/write access to?
A. software configuration management
B. test management
C. automation
D. requirements management
Answer: D

Progress frequently stalls because team members are unaware of which tasks they must complete in
order for the group to move forward.
Which IBM Rational CLM feature helps prevent these delays the most.?
A. The Planned Time view shows the work load for each team member.
B. The Roadmap view makes dependencies visible to the whole team.
C. Ranked lists ensure that the team works on important items first.
D. In-place status updates appear in the plan automatically.
Answer: B

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Share some CCIE 400-101 exam questions and answers below.
Which two statements about static routing are true?(choose two.)

A. It provides better security than dynamic routing

B. It is highly scalable as networks grow.

C. It reduces configuration errors.

D. It requires less bandwidth and fewer CPU cycles than dynamic routing protocols.

E. It can be implemented more quickly than dynamic routing.

Answer: A ,D

Which two statements about route redistribution default metrics are true? (Choose two)

A. When EIGRP is redistributed into OSPF as E2, it has a default metric of 20.

B. When an IGP is redistributed into RIP, it has a default metric of 1.

C. When an IGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 110.

D. When an IGP is redistributed into IS-IS, it has a default metric of 115.

E. When an BGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 1.

Answer: A, E

Drag and drop BGP attributes on the left into the correct priority order in which the attributes are preferred when determining the best path on the right.

Answer:

Which data plane protocol does EIGRP Over the Top use?

A. MPLS

B. GRE

C. LISP

D. IP-in-IP

Answer: C

What are two mechanisms that directed ARP uses to help resolve IP addresses to hardware addresses? (Choose two)

A. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise rou information for the device loopback address.

B. It uses ICMP redirects to advertise next-hop addresses to foreign hosts.

C. It uses series of ICMP echo messages to relay next-hop addresses.

D. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise routing information for the next-hop address.

E. It uses a proxy mechanism to allow a device to respond to ARP requests for the addresses of other devices.

Answer: BD

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