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What is the solution of the fault condition?

A. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration add the permit ip 209.65.200.224 0.0.0.3 any command

B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 enter the ip access-group edge_security out command.

C. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration delete the deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any command

D. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration delete the ip access-group edge_security in command and enter the ip access group edge_security out command

Answer: A

What is the solution to the fault condition?

A. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command.

B. Under the interface Loopback6 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command.

C. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command.

D. Under ipv6 router ospf 6 configuration enter the redistribute rip RIP_ZONE include-connected command.

Answer: D

Ticket 4 NATACL

TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT:

The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server).

show run by yourself to obtain the following information:

Configuration on R1

ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload !

ip access-list standard nat_pool

permit 10.1.0.0

! interface Serial0/0/0/1

ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252

ip nat outside

! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip nat inside

ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT

ip ospd authentication message-digest

On Which device is the fault condition located?

A. R1

B. R2

C. R3

D. R4

E. DSW1

F. DSW2

G. ASW1

Answer: A

Ticket 5 R1ACL

TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT:

The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server).

show run by yourself to obtain the following information:

Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 is also not able to reach the WebServer. R1 also does not have any active BGP neighbor.

Configuration on R1

! interface Serial0/0/0/1

description link to ISP

ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252

ip access-group edge_security in

ip nat outside

ip virtual-reassembly

ntp brasdcast client

net broadcast key 1

no cdp enable

!! ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255

ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255

! ip access-list edge_security deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any

ip access-list edge_security deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any

ip access-list edge_security deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any

ip access-list edge_security deny ip 127.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any

ip access-list edge_security permit ip host 209.65.200.241 any

On which device is the fault condition located?

A. R1

B. R2

C. R3

D. R4

E. DSW1

F. DSW2

G. ASW1

Answer: A

R1 and R2 OSPF neighbor.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two)

(Output from show ip ospf neighbors on 2 routers, one of them shows FULL/DR, the other FULL/-, you need to know how were they configured and will they exchange routes)

A. They are not neighbors

B. R1 (non-DR) will not update its routes to R2

C. Router R2 is configured with ospf point-to-point command (R2 is the router that shows as FULL/-)

D. They need to be configured as OSPF NBMA

E. R2 should be configured as stub

Answer: BC

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Which FEX topology ensures deterministic bandwidth at the expense of server-link stability during FEX uplink failure?

A. port channel

B. static pinning

C. virtual port channel

D. dynamic pinning

E. Equal-Cost Multipath

F. RPVST

Answer: B

Which design steps could be considered optional?

A. audit

B. solution sizing

C. analysis

D. deployment provision

Answer: A

What is your recommendation to a customer interested in slowing power consumption in the data center? (Choose two.)

A. Consolidate servers through virtualization.

B. Convert servers from 220v to 110v.

C. Implement Cisco Unified Fabric.

D. Convert from AC to DC power distribution.

E. Stop using redundant power supplies.

Answer: A, C

Which performance characteristic is least likely to require being addressed in the data center solution requirements?

A. server virtualization

B. desktop virtualization

C. distributed computing

D. private cloud

E. power efficiency

Answer: E

Which access-layer device is capable of low-latency 40 Gb Ethernet switching?

A. Cisco Nexus 5596UP

B. Cisco Nexus 4000

C. Cisco Nexus 3016

D. Cisco Nexus 2232

E. Cisco Nexus 2248

Answer: C

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What type of algorithm uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data?

A. a symmetric algorithm

B. an asymmetric algorithm

C. a Public Key Infrastructure algorithm

D. an IP security algorithm

Answer: A

Which two statements about Telnet access to the ASA are true? (Choose two).

A. You may VPN to the lowest security interface to telnet to an inside interface.

B. You must configure an AAA server to enable Telnet.

C. You can access all interfaces on an ASA using Telnet.

D. You must use the command virtual telnet to enable Telnet.

E. Best practice is to disable Telnet and use SSH.

Answer: A,E

What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)

A. 0

B. 1

C. 5

D. 7

E. 10

F. 15

Answer: B,F

What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal firewall?

A. To protect endpoints such as desktops from malicious activity.

B. To protect one virtual network segment from another.

C. To determine whether a host meets minimum security posture requirements.

D. To create a separate, non-persistent virtual environment that can be destroyed after a session.

E. To protect the network from DoS and syn-flood attacks.

Answer: A

What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?

A. split tunneling

B. hairpinning

C. tunnel mode

D. transparent mode

Answer: A

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Which feature is automatically configured when an administrator enables a voice VLAN?

A: 802.1Q trunking

B: PortFast

C: QoS

D: private VLANs

Answer: B

What is the default value for the errdisable recovery interval in a Cisco switch?

A. 30 seconds

B. 100 seconds

C. 300 seconds

D. 600 seconds

Answer: C

In a Cisco switch, what is the default period of time after which a MAC address ages out and is discarded?

A. 100 seconds

B. 180 seconds

C. 300 seconds

D. 600 seconds

Answer: C

While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking is not currently enabled.

Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol?

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2

B. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager

C. logging buffered

D. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface

E. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options

Answer: A

After configuring new data VLANs 1020 through 1030 on the VTP server, a network engineer notices that none of the VTP clients are receiving the updates.

What is the problem?

A. The VTP server must be reloaded.

B. The VTP version number must be set to version 3.

C. After each update to the VTP server, it takes up to 4 hours propagate.

D. VTP must be stopped and restarted on the server.

E. Another switch in the domain has a higher revision number than the server.

Answer: B

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Which definition describes the main purpose of a Security Information and Event Management solution ?

A. a database that collects and categorizes indicators of compromise to evaluate and search for potential security threats

B. a monitoring interface that manages firewall access control lists for duplicate firewall filtering

C. a relay server or device that collects then forwards event logs to another log collection device

D. a security product that collects, normalizes, and correlates event log data to provide holistic views of the security posture

Answer: D

Which protocol is expected to have NTP a user agent, host, and referrer headers in a packet capture?

A. NTP

B. HTTP

C. DNS

D. SSH

Answer: B

Which definition of a fork in Linux is true?

A. daemon to execute scheduled commands

B. parent directory name of a file pathname

C. macros for manipulating CPU sets

D. new process created by a parent process

Answer: C

Which identifier is used to describe the application or process that submitted a log message?

A. action

B. selector

C. priority

D. facility

Answer: D

Which definition of permissions in Linux is true?

A. rules that allow network traffic to go in and out

B. table maintenance program

C. written affidavit that you have to sign before using the system

D. attributes of ownership and control of an object

Answer: A

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Which two options can be used by a threat actor to determine the role of a server? (Choose two.)

A. PCAP

B. tracert

C. running processes

D. hard drive configuration

E. applications

Answer: CD

Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component?

A. confidentiality

B. integrity

C. availability

D. complexity

Answer: A

You see 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for various pages on one of your webservers. The user agent in the requests contain php code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new php file on the webserver. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?

A. delivery

B. reconnaissance

C. action on objectives

D. installation

E. exploitation

Answer: D

Which two components are included in a 5-tuple? (Choose two.)

A. port number

B. destination IP address

C. data packet

D. user name

E. host logs

Answer: BC

During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?

A. collection

B. examination

C. reporting

D. investigation

Answer: A

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An engineer is trying to convert the IP Address of the wireless controller to amend DHCP Option 43 configuration on the DHCP server.

What mathematical format must the IP address of the Wireless controller be converted to in order to function correctly?

A. Hexadecimal

B. Binary

C. Decimal

D. ASCII

Answer: A

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B. patch

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D. dipole

E. internal omnidirectional

Answer: C

After you configure the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller v7.6, a customer requests an SSID that allows for client web authentication with email input.

Which authentication method should be used?

A. pass-through

B. authentication

C. splash page web redirect

D. conditional web redirect

E. on MAC filter failure

Answer: A

An engineer is trying to identify if radar has impacted the wireless network at a customer site.

When using the controller GUI, which dashboard in the Monitor section presents this information?

A. 802.11a/n – Air Quality Reports

B. Clean Air – Worst Air Quality Report

C. 802.11b/g/n – Interfering Devices

D. Statistics – Mobility Statistics

Answer: A

A customer wants to deploy a mesh network with 2 root access points and 10 mesh access points. The root access points should be configured as which mode on the WLC?

A. mesh

B. FlexConnect

C. bridge

D. rouge detection

E. sniffer

Answer: C

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A user needs to access CAR logs to adjust settings. Which two options are required? (Choose two.)

A. The user account has the Standard CAR Admin Users role.

B. The user must log in at https://<Server-ip/name>:8443/car/Logon.jsp.

C. The user must log in at https://<Server-ip/name>:8443/cdr/Logon.jsp.

D. The user account has the CTI Enabled role.

E. The user account has the Standard CAR role.

Answer: A,B

An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?

A. Bulk Administration Tool

B. Product Upgrade Tool

C. Command Lookup Tool

D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page

E. Cisco Upload Tool

Answer: A

An end user is running Cisco Jabber on the desktop. Which two icons must be selected to make a video call? (Choose two.)

A. Contacts icon

B. phone icon

C. person icon

D. message icon

E. web video conferencing icon

Answer: A,B

A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?

A. Line Text Label

B. Alerting Name

C. External Phone Number Mask

D. Caller Name

E. Description

Answer: A

Which component is needed to facilitate the connection between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Presence Server?

A. SIP trunk

B. H.323 gateway

C. Gatekeeper

D. MGCP gateway

E. Cisco Unified Border Element

Answer: A

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In which operation mode does the AP act as a dedicated sensor for location-based and intrusion detection services?

A. monitor mode

B. promiscuous mode

C. discovery mode

D. sniffer mode

Answer: A

A remote user for a company must periodically connect to the company network to access internal resources using a company laptop with software that was preinstalled by the IT department. Which VPN method is used for connectivity?

A. DMVPN

B. SSL VPN

C. IPsec VPN

D. GET VPN

Answer: C

Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two.)

A. video streaming on the LAN

B. security between departments

C. the segmenting of collision domains

D. the segmenting of broadcast domains

E. the use of multivendor equipment

F. a limited corporate budget

Answer: B,D

Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing network? (Choose three.)

A. staff input

B. visual inventory

C. network audit

D. traffic analysis

E. server statistics

Answer: A,C,D

Which type of area should you use in an enterprise OSPF deployment if you want to prevent propagation of type 5 LSAs but still allow the redistribution of external routes?

A. stub

B. totally stubby

C. backbone

D. NSSA

E. virtual link

Answer: D

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Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125 exam questions and answers below.
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

A. application

B. presentation

C. session

D. transport

E. internet

F. data link

Answer: A

If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?

A. a switch with priority 20480

B. a switch with priority 8192

C. a switch with priority 4096

D. a switch with priority 12288

Answer: A

Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?

A. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y

Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20

B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y

Switch(config-if)#vlan 20

Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20

C. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20

D. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20

E. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20

Answer: A

After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?

A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0

B. Router#show run

C. Router#show interface loopback 0

D. Router#show ip interface brief

Answer: A

What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?

A. Forwarding

B. Enabled

C. Disabled

D. errdisabled

Answer: D

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